Hi all,
I do not want to get into the debate of whether vinyl sounds better than CDs or vice versa. CDs are convenient. But a carefully implemented TT system can be magical and can have a natural texture to the sound that is very hard to achieve otherwise. Given the quality of the source material and the equipments I can enjoy both CDs and vinyls.
The above issue regarding music is one and is not the type likely to be resolved any time soon, not just here in hifivision but worldwide. On the other hand, the on-going discussion about the sampling theorem is another matter. It is a matter of mathematics and there should not be any confusion about it.
It IS wrong to think that just because engineers cannot build a perfect digital filter, the sampling theorem cannot be implemented perfectly in practice. Even if engineers could build a perfect filter, the theorem would not be implemented perfectly in practice. There are other reasons for the theorem not being implementable perfectly in reality. I explained this in detail in a thread in this forum here
http://www.hifivision.com/phono-tur...-vinyl-sounds-better-digital-4.html#post37340 . When forum member ajinkya-ji raised doubts about reasonings of that post of mine, I answered back with this post
http://www.hifivision.com/phono-tur...-vinyl-sounds-better-digital-4.html#post37340 in the same thread. I apologize for the technical nature of these posts, especially the second one, but that could not be helped, because the issue concerns mathematics which by definition is a technical subject beyond a certain level.
Some time later our forum member gobble-ji created a thread
http://www.hifivision.com/phono-tur...-vinyl-sounds-better-digital-4.html#post37340 in this forum where he basically gave a link to a very very interesting article (
http://www.bl.uk/reshelp/findhelpres...estoration.pdf).
I am a physicist by profession and not a mathematician. But because I am a theoretical physicist, I know a bit of mathematics and my two posts referred to above were written from that background after taking a quick look at the proof of the theorem. But I was still in my mind searching for real evidence. Thanks to the article referenced by gobble-ji, I found that piece of evidence in page 29 of that article, it says:
".. if perfect filters are approached by careful engineering, another mathematical theorem called the Gibbs effect may distort the resulting waveshapes.
An analogue square-wave signal will acquire ripples along its top and bottom edges, looking exactly like a high-frequency resonance."
The article then goes on and describes how oversampling is needed to overcome the Gibbs effect.
I looked up this "Gibbs effect" in the literature, even wiki has it
Gibbs phenomenon - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia . It turns out that the general phenomenon of this kind was first discovered more than 150 years ago, and in 1898 Gibbs wrote a paper on it from theory of Fourier series.
Anyway, my general reasoning based on the simple fact that one cannot get infinite amount of information from a finite amount of data seems to hold water. I did not want to make a noise about my findings on the Gibbs effect then, but now that the same wrong arguments have surfaced again, I want to lay down the mathematical facts. Anybody who knows and uses Fourier transforms should be able to understand the reasoning with a bit of effort.
Let me say at the end that I honestly do not think it plays a huge role in determining whether vinyls or CDs sound better than each other, if both are recorded and played well. Of course it plays a role in the basic designs of the CDPs, DVDPs, camera sensors and a whole lot other things as more knowledgable members have already stated.
Regards.